Re: What u mean by this statemnet ?.
- From: "Vladimir S. Oka" <novine@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 31 Jan 2006 02:15:15 -0800
Umesh wrote:
>Richard Heathfield wrote:
>> (*IR)->func is equivalent to (**IR).func
>
> Then how compiler interpret this two statement.
Please properly quote who said what. The first line above was by
Richard, and the second is your question, as far as I can see, so the
answer to your question is:
The compiler interprets these two in exactly the same way (i.e.
produces exactly the same code/behaviour). The two are obviously not
the /same/ (not spelled the same, if you want), but they mean /the same
thing/ to the compiler. Think of a->b as shorthand for (*a).b, and
things may be clearer. Thus:
(**IR).func <=> (*(*IR)).func <=> (*IR)->func
Cheers
Vladimir
.
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