Re: Passing an invalid date to INTEGER-OF-DATE

I just found the correct run-time message. See:

http://publibz.boulder.ibm.com/cgi-bin/bookmgr_OS390/BOOKS/ceea9150/7.87
and
http://publibz.boulder.ibm.com/cgi-bin/bookmgr_OS390/BOOKS/ceea9150/7.88


In "IBM-ese" there are a S-level messages and results in the programming
"ABENDing".

--
Bill Klein
wmklein <at> ix.netcom.com
"William M. Klein" <wmklein@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:omKke.493207$QY2.208777@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Walter,
> I haven't tried it recently, but I think that IBM mainframes give a run-time
> error and terminate. I know that when you do "similar" things with their
> callable services, you get something like the message at:
>
> http://publibz.boulder.ibm.com/cgi-bin/bookmgr_OS390/BOOKS/ceea9150/1.107
>
> P.S. Usual "reminder" the Intrinsic Function module was OPTIONAL in the '89
> (not '85) ANSI/ISO Standard (even at the high level) - but was REQUIRED by the
> FIPS High-Level specification.
>
> There was NO requirement in any of these as to what happened with invalid
> arguments.
>
> --
> Bill Klein
> wmklein <at> ix.netcom.com
> "Walter Murray" <wmurray@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
> news:4292ab55$1_2@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
>> What happens in COBOL if you reference the INTEGER-OF-DATE function and
>> specify an invalid date for the argument?
>>
>> The 1985 COBOL standard says that anything can happen ("the result of such a
>> reference is undefined").
>>
>> I would be interested to know the results for various compilers. The
>> question came up during a migration.
>>
>> Thanks.
>>
>> Walter
>>
>>
>>
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.

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