Re: diff between cobol1 & cobol3

On 12 Dec, 05:30, "William M. Klein" <wmkl...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
"Robert" <n...@xxxxxx> wrote in message

news:iglul39116trio9td6bnuj81gc2r60nkhd@xxxxxxxxxx

On Wed, 12 Dec 2007 01:48:21 GMT, "William M. Klein"
<wmkl...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
<snip>
The only other thing that I could think of that he might have been thinking
about is the INTDATE compiler option. See:
http://publibz.boulder.ibm.com/cgi-bin/bookmgr_OS390/BOOKS/IGY3PG32/2...

which deals with what COBOL vs LE thinks of as "day 1" for Lilian (or
pseudo-Lilian) dates.

IBM got it right. The Gregorian calendar did begin on 10/15/1582, in Italy and
Catholic
places. England and its (then) Dominions switched to the Gregorian calendar
on 9/14/1752.
Nothing notable date-wise happened in 1601. Why is the Cobol floor 01/01/1601?

The COBOL definition exists so that when you use the MOD and 7 intrinsic
function you will get the same results for day-of-week - other than "0" vs "7".
As VERY FEW COBOL programs need to deal with dates between 1582 and 1601, I
think they thought this difference was less important that MOD / 7 results.

P.S. I think there may be some Library programs that need to deal with those
pre-1601 dates, but probably not as many as COBOL programs needing to deal with
Unicode Klingon data <G>.

--
Bill Klein
wmklein <at> ix.netcom.com

Are you suggesting that we should incorporate Klingon Unicode into the
next Cobol standard? ;-)
.

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