substitution principle and contract

From: "Tony Johansson" <johansson.andersson@xxxxxxxxx>
Date: Sun, 25 Sep 2005 12:22:25 GMT

Hello!

I'm reading a paper about substitution principle and contract and here it
something that sound strange.

It says "Of course, for a contract to be redefined the precondition and
postcondition cannot both remain the same."

My question why?

.

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