Re: Aspiring highest-order programmer

From: Ben Measures (saint_abroadremove_at_removehotmail.com)
Date: 05/27/04 

Date: Thu, 27 May 2004 16:16:33 GMT

Michael Wojcik wrote:
> Ben Measures writes:
>>There is a fundamental difference with languages such as HTML, a markup
>>language. It organises content but doesn't instruct the computer to do
>>anything. The HTML is not executed. Hence there is no machine code
>>representation.
>
> Hence it's not a program, and not a counterexample to the OP's
> question. Your argument is moot.

Ben wrote:
> Of course, now comes the discussion of whether languages that are not
> executed by computers are "programming languages". However, I fear this
> discussion will not involve me as it will be lengthy with little result.

Keep in mind that my reply was in response to Arthur suggesting (that
Dave could create) an argument that there exists machine code
representation for HTML.

>>Now let's deal with Dave's argument:
>>>the path taken through a particular browser's machine code as a result
>>>of that script executing would describe a machine code representation
>>>of that script
>>
>>This can be shown to be nonsense by considering a simple plain-english
>>text file which is displayed by a text editor such as Notepad. You could
>>use the same argument to prove that the english had a machine code
>>representation.
>
> No, Dave's argument would be that there is a machine-language program
> which produces the equivalent output, and so an assembly-language
> program which produces the equivalent output.

I wasn't suggesting an argument that Dave could make. Here I was
directly quoting a previous post written by Dave himself. My reply was
to show that argument to be false.

You instead create an argument that Dave "would have made". I'm not sure
you've even thought through your second guess argument.

>>The fallacy here is the assumption that the language is executed.
>
> The fallacy is your confusion between input and output, and between
> program and data.

You propose a fallacy but to what? Dave's argument or my counter-example?

How does my counter-example fall outside the confines of Dave's argument?

If my counter-example satisfies Dave's argument then doesn't your
fallacy apply to Dave's argument, thereby showing it to be false? 

-- 
Ben M.

Relevant Pages

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