Re: Platonism

From: Mitch Harris (harrisq_at_tcs.inf.tu-dresden.de)
Date: 12/06/04


Date: 6 Dec 2004 20:31:23 GMT

Lester Zick <lesterDELzick@worldnet.att.net> wrote:
>On Mon, 06 Dec 2004 10:03:10 +0100, Mitch Harris wrote:
>>Lester Zick wrote:
>> >
>>> I don't see how first, second, third, etc. can possibly map one to one
>>> to one, two, three because the intervals involved cannot be assumed
>>> the same, which is the whole point of cardinal numbers.
>>
...
>>The ordinals of two sets are the same if there is a one-to-one
>>order-preserving correspondence between the two sets (and associated
>>-total- orderings; you can't compare two sets ordinally without an
>>order).
>>
>>So technically, cardinals are not ordinals.
>
>OK. Good. Some progress, at least.
>
>>But, consider a finite ordinal, say one with three elements (yes,
>>having cardinality 3). Then, for all six possible total orderings of
>>these three elements (the 6 possible ways of making an ordinal out of
>>it), they is an obvious order preserving isomorphism, between any pair
>>(lowest to lowest, middle to middle, highest to highest).
>>
>>So there is exactly one ordinal for any finite cardinal. Is the finite
>>ordinal identical to its corresponding finite cardinal? Technically,
>>no, but the correspondence tells you they act pretty much the same and
>>can be easily converted one to the other.
>
>But only preserving isomorphism. Technically they are not the same
>unless isomorphism is preserved, and practically if isomorphism is
>preserved you are only discussing cardinal sets to begin with. When
>discussing ordinality in general, there is no necessary isomorphism
>and no necessary cardinality. But I appreciate the straightforward
>reply.

For finite ordinals and cardinals there is an obvious necessary
isomorphism (which involves forgetting the order).

In general, well, that's another story.

Mitch



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