Shannon's information theory

From: Thomas B. (thetom_at_unixisnot4dummies.org)
Date: 12/21/04 

Date: Tue, 21 Dec 2004 13:43:29 +0100

Hello.
I have a question about calculating the entropy of an integer
value (32 bit).

Let's call the value x. x's range is 0-(2^32-1).
I make a meassure of x. I got 5 samples and x is
100 everytime.
I repeat this experiment to verify my results,
everytime x is 5 times 100.

Therefore my mind tells me: no entropy.

But what about the formula? How should I set
the probability?

If I set p to 5/5 = 1 then entropy is 0.
(5 times occurence, 5 samples)
But this looks wrong, because x can be
every value from 0 to 2^32-1.
Therefore p = 5/2^32 which leads to an entropy > 0.

So what does matter:
        a) the number of theoretically possible values
                x can have?
        b) the number of different values that really
                occur?

Thanks for your help.

Thomas