Re: Shannon's information theory

From: r.e.s. (r.s_at_ZZmindspring.com)
Date: 12/22/04

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    Date: Wed, 22 Dec 2004 01:50:59 GMT
    
    

    "Thomas B." <thetom@unixisnot4dummies.org> wrote ...

    > I have a question about calculating the entropy of an integer
    > value (32 bit).

    Shannon's entropy is a function whose value is determined
    by a probability *distribution*. So if there is an integer
    about whose value you have some subjective uncertainty
    described by a (subjective) probability distribution, the
    integer could be said to "have" that amount of entropy,
    although the entropy is associated with the distribution.

    > Let's call the value x. x's range is 0-(2^32-1).
    > I make a meassure of x. I got 5 samples and x is
    > 100 everytime.
    > I repeat this experiment to verify my results,
    > everytime x is 5 times 100.
    >
    > Therefore my mind tells me: no entropy.

    So you're not talking about *an* x, but about a sequence
    x(1), x(2), ... of integers. Given x(1)=...=x(5)=100,
    you now have some conditional probability distribution
    on the set of possible values for x(6),
    i.e. p_0, p_1, ... p_(2^32-1),
    where p_i = pr(x(6)=i|x(1)=...=x(5)=100). Finding the
    p_i typically involves Bayesian statistics.

    When you say "my mind tells me: no entropy", don't you
    actually mean that, subjectively, most of the p_i's are
    much smaller than p_100? The more concentrated the
    probability distribution is (i.e. the more sure you
    become of what x(6) is), the closer the entropy is to
    H(p_0,...,p_(2^32-1)) = H(0,0,0,0,0,1,0,...,0) = 0
    -- consistent with "what your mind was telling you".

    > But what about the formula? How should I set
    > the probability?
    >
    > If I set p to 5/5 = 1 then entropy is 0.
    > (5 times occurence, 5 samples)
    > But this looks wrong, because x can be
    > every value from 0 to 2^32-1.
    >
    > Therefore p = 5/2^32 which leads to an entropy > 0.

    There isn't just one p --the entropy value depends on
    the probability *distribution* -- i.e. on all 2^32
    probability values. If p_100 ~ 1, then all the other
    p_i ~ 0, giving entropy ~ 0.

    > So what does matter:
    > a) the number of theoretically possible values
    > x can have?
    > b) the number of different values that really
    > occur?

    All that matters for the value of Shannon's entropy
    is the probability distribution in question, which
    typically depends on both (a) and (b).

    --r.e.s.


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