Re: Random reals are not computable!

examachine_at_gmail.com
Date: 01/26/05 

Date: 26 Jan 2005 10:28:50 -0800

Torkel Franzen wrote:
> examachine@gmail.com writes:
>
> > There is no such thing as the Turing-equivalence of two numbers
that I
> > know of,
>
> It means they have the same Turing degree.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turing_degree

A real number is not a subset of natural numbers. Sure, it can be
represented as some subset, but strictly speaking, you are abusing the
term, and I don't like that.

Again, I'm asking you: what does it mean for a real number a to be
Turing equivalent to a real number b?

What does it mean for a real number a to have a Turing degree? I
honestly didn't hear such use, and I'm expecting a clarification.

I asked you guys before: do you mean reduction between two problems
when you said the two numbers are Turing equivalent? Let's be precise,
please. You demand maximum precision from me, and I demand the same
thing from you. 

--
Eray

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