Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- From: Bart Demoen <bmd@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 23 Jun 2005 21:20:48 +0200
Shashi wrote:
Bryan Olson wrote:
Bart Demoen wrote: > Also "NP-complete is strict subset of NP" - right ?
Right.
"NP-complete is strict subset of NP" iff P!=NP ?
As others have pointed out: the empty language is in P, and it is not in NP-complete (whatever the outcome of the question P=?NP).
Because ... under the relation "is polynomially equivalent to", P has three equivalence classes; one class consists of the empty language, one class is the language consisting of all strings, the third class contains all other languages (neither empty, nor the whole of $\Sigma^*$); since NPC itself is an equivalence class, NPC can't be equal to P. The definition of "transforms polynomially into" has a crucial iff that is missed often.
Cheers
Bart Demoen .
- References:
- NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- From: yijun_lily
- Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- From: Torben Ægidius Mogensen
- Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- From: Bart Demoen
- Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- From: Bryan Olson
- Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- From: Shashi
- NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- Prev by Date: Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- Next by Date: NFA behaviour with "empty string"
- Previous by thread: Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- Next by thread: Re: NP-complete and NP-Hard?
- Index(es):