Re: A New Reduction Rule for Exactly 1 in 3 SAT

I am little confusing with following rule:
(a,b,u) = (~a+~b) where u = ~a~b
Could you explain what kind of reduction is it? Is it from 1-in-3 SAT
to 1-in-3 SAT?
If yes then (a,b,u)(~a)(~b) is in 1-in-3 SAT and u is unique but after
applying your rule
the formula (~a, ~b)(~a)(~b) is not in 1-in-3 SAT.

where p = ~a~b = ~c~d
It means that firstly you replace all occurences of p by ~a~b and next
you replace all
occurences of ~a~b by ~c~d, does it?

M.M.
.