Re: M times M = M?
- From: rpost@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx (rpost)
- Date: Thu, 01 May 2008 10:39:08 +0200
Yes, because if L is the lanaguage of M then the question becomes "L
intersect L = L?". But is there other ways to prove this?
I believe what you're looking for is the notion of isomorphism.
You can try to map the states and transitions of M to those of MxM
in such a way that the transitions between the mapped states are
exactly the mappings of the transitions between their originals.
--
Reinier
.
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